lewis-white_60a5b1f6d8749
lewis-white_60a5b1f6d8749
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If the equation is really a^((km)/(kn)) = a^(m/n) and k is nonzero, then there is no problem. By order of operations you simplify (km)/(kn) to m/n first, and then both sides are clearly the same. But the way you wrote it the first time make…