how is cos(π/4) = (√2)/2 ?

jenna

i thought it would have been 1/√2 (from the special triangle...)

anonymous

(√2)/2 is the same as 1/√2, so you are correct.

We can prove this as follows:

Multiply 1/√2 by √2/√2

It gives (√2)/2

markus0003000

cos(π/4) = √(2)/2

You are correct that it is 1 /√(2) but it is also √(2)/2.

And that's because 1 / √(2) = √(2)/2

1 / √(2)

Rationalize the denominator of this and you get:

√(2) / 2

Hope it helps

william-richards_60c1da3a9f77e

They are the same.

1 / sqr (2) = sqr (2) / (sqr (2) * sqr(2) ) = sqr(2) / 2