Abstract Algebra Isomorphic?

Prove that if φ : S →S’ is an isomorphism of <S, *> with <S’ , *’> then φ-1 is an isomorphism of <S’,*’> with <S,*>???

Comments

  • φ maps S onto S' in a one-to-one fashion, meaning that each element u in S' has a unique corresponding element a in S such that φ(a) = u.

    Since a is unique, the inverse map φ-1(u) = a from S' to S is well defined and unique. This shows φ-1 is a one-to-one map from S' to S.

    Since a is an arbitrary element of S and φ is an onto map from S to S' then φ-1(φ(a)) = a maps S' onto S.

    Let φ(a) = u and φ(b) = v, then since φ is an isomorphism φ(ab) = uv, ie, φ(φ-1(u)φ-1(v))=uv, and finally applying φ-1 to both sides gives us φ-1(u)φ-1(v) = φ-1(uv).

  • first of all, if φ is an isomorphism, it is bijective, so it has an inverse FUNCTION φ^-1.

    this function φ^-1 is also bijective, because it has the inverse φ

    (a function is bijective if and only if it has a (two-sided) inverse. you might try proving this, it's instructive).

    so all we need to do is show that φ^-1 is also a homomorphism.

    so let x,y be any two elements of S'.

    since φ is surjective, x = φ(u) for some u in S, and y = φ(v) for some v in S.

    moreover, since φ is injective, we know that φ^-1(x) = u, and φ^-1(y) = v.

    thus:

    φ^-1(x*'y) = φ^-1(φ(u)*'φ(v))

    = φ^-1(φ(u*v)) = (φ^-1oφ)(u*v) = u*v

    = φ^-1(x)*φ^-1(y), so φ^-1 is indeed a homomorphism, and being bijective,

    is an isomorphism.

  • Fish. The answer...is fish.

Sign In or Register to comment.